If we bet a fraction f of our capital on each round, and a win resulted in a gain of f×b, and a loss resulted in a loss of f×a, then after S winning rounds and F losing rounds, n=F+S, we would have a portfolio worth
Wn=(1+fb)S(1−fa)FWe want to know what fraction f of our capital would maximize that. Since the log function is a monotonically increasing function (fancy speak for: it always increases as x increases), it is equivalent to maximize logWn and this will prove an easier task.
logWn=Slog(1+fb)+Flog(1−fa)The thing we want to maximize is our expected wealth after n rounds
E[logWn]=E[Slog(1+fb)+Flog(1−fa)]On the right-hand side, by linearity of expectation of the fact that log(1+fb) and log(1−fb) are not random variables, just deterministic scalars, we can pull them out and simplify to:
E[logWn]=E[S]log(1+fb)+E[F]log(1−fa)If we have chance p of a bet winning, and (1−p) of it losing, then each bet is a Bernoulli trial and after n rounds the results will be binomially distributed. The mean of the number of winning bets will therefore be E(S)=np, and the mean of the losing bets will be E(F)=n(1−p)
E[logWn]=nplog(1+fb)+n(1−p)log(1−fa)Jensen asidePermalink
For a strictly concave function like the log, Jensen’s Inequality tells us that
g(E(X))>E(g(X))so
log(E(Wn))>E(log(Wn))hence we are also maximizing the expected wealth E(Wn)
Maximising with the usual calculus wayPermalink
Differentiating
pb1+fb−a(1−p)1−fa=0Solving for f with a bit of algebra gives
f=pb−a(1−p)abThis is the optimal fraction to bet given chances of winning and the payout scheme
ExamplesPermalink
Coming soon…
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