If we bet a fraction f of our capital on each round, and a win resulted in a gain of f×b, and a loss resulted in a loss of f×a, then after S winning rounds and F losing rounds, n=F+S, we would have a portfolio worth

Wn=(1+fb)S(1fa)F

We want to know what fraction f of our capital would maximize that. Since the log function is a monotonically increasing function (fancy speak for: it always increases as x increases), it is equivalent to maximize logWn and this will prove an easier task.

logWn=Slog(1+fb)+Flog(1fa)

The thing we want to maximize is our expected wealth after n rounds

E[logWn]=E[Slog(1+fb)+Flog(1fa)]

On the right-hand side, by linearity of expectation of the fact that log(1+fb) and log(1fb) are not random variables, just deterministic scalars, we can pull them out and simplify to:

E[logWn]=E[S]log(1+fb)+E[F]log(1fa)

If we have chance p of a bet winning, and (1p) of it losing, then each bet is a Bernoulli trial and after n rounds the results will be binomially distributed. The mean of the number of winning bets will therefore be E(S)=np, and the mean of the losing bets will be E(F)=n(1p)

E[logWn]=nplog(1+fb)+n(1p)log(1fa)

Jensen asidePermalink

For a strictly concave function like the log, Jensen’s Inequality tells us that

g(E(X))>E(g(X))

so

log(E(Wn))>E(log(Wn))

hence we are also maximizing the expected wealth E(Wn)

Maximising with the usual calculus wayPermalink

Differentiating

pb1+fba(1p)1fa=0

Solving for f with a bit of algebra gives

f=pba(1p)ab

This is the optimal fraction to bet given chances of winning and the payout scheme

ExamplesPermalink

Coming soon…

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